![]() I fail to see how that is a contradiction. 2:6, land is originally dry, and has to be watered before life is possible. Genesis 1:9, dry land has to be separated from water before life is possible, vs. Not only that, but who's to say that Adam didn't originally have the psyche of both male and female and God separated the one from the other in the creation of Eve? It's not a set of two different myths being put together, but of two separate views of the same Creation.Įxcept that there are contradictions (what do chapters/verses have to do with anything? they are just used to point to specific passages). Genesis 1 is God writing about the creation of everything and Genesis 2 is Adam's account which, of course, focuses more on the creation and history of Man. The different chapters of Genisis are commonly thought to have been different books by different authors. ![]() I'm surprised that no one has actually thought about the fact that chapters and verses weren't there in the original Hebrew text. that word asks for trouble and helps nothing. Anyone know what these mysterious missing verses say, or was it just a typo? However, in the King James Version of the bible that they provide a link to, there is no 2:27. The article states that the discrepency in Genesis may be "a careless weaving together of two discrete biblical creation myths, as the Bible describes man being created in both Genesis 1:26 and 2:27." It's because interpreting the Creation accounts in Genesis as being a single creation account can be percieved as requiring there to be a woman before a woman was made from adam's rib ("man and woman he created them. ![]() Then after he fled to the land of Nod and found a wife there. Genesis 1:27 in the King James Bible states "So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him male and female created he them." redcountess 19:05, (UTC) ![]() Anyone out there know the correct references? I can't figure how either of these can possibly be interpreted as saying that God created a man and woman before creating Eve. However, the King James versions have Genesis 2:21 saying "And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof ", and Genesis 4:8 saying "And Cain talked with Abel his brother: and it came to pass, when they were in the field, that Cain rose up against Abel his brother, and slew him.". The article states: "there are many Old Testament passages that are said to refer to Lilith, including those in Genesis 2:21 and 4:8 which refer to the creation of a man and woman before the creation of Eve.". Specifying the dates of writings that were created that first explicitly mentioned Lilith would help. Is it possible to state in NPOV that the concept of Lilith in the Bible was created by Kabbalists at a much later date than Genesis was written, and therefore the concept could not "originally" exist in the Bible, but was simply a much later idea/interpretation of what was written? Lilith is a Kabbalistic view of Genesis, possibly borrowing from Mesopotamian (or other) myth. Is "Lillith" really a valid alternative spelling for the first sense, or was BenBaker wrong about that one too? - Zundark, 2002 Jan 3 It's better now, but more could still be said. Note that there has been a complete rewrite since the above complaints. It's probably not actually wrong, but it's not very encyclopediac, and a lot more needs to be said. Lilith may originally have been a figure in pre-Jewish mythology, but most of the modern picture seems to have originated sometime after 800AD, at first in Jewish circles, but sometimes among Christians as well. Some English translations attempt to translate the name or word to various possible meanings, others leave it as Lilith. It is there in the Hebrew original, but unclear if it means this Lilith. There is a possible mention of Lilith in the old testament, in Isaiah chapter 34. Could someone who knows more about either of these two areas look at this article and replace it with something more reasonable? I may not know much about the bible, and I may not know much about vampire folklore, but this seems a bit peculliar to me.
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